Biolearnspot: CUET MSC ZOOLOGY OR ANIMAL SCIENCE ENTRANCE EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Maximum recombination frequency between two genes is-

(a) 25 % (b) 50 %

2. The distance between two base pairs in Watson-Crick B-DNA is

(a) 34 nm (b) 3.4 nm

3. The stage of meiosis I in which crossing over takes place

(a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene

4. Among the following which mutagen induces formation of thymidine dimmers in

DNA

(a) UV (b) Ethyl methyl sulphate

5. Na+ – K+ pump is-

(a) Symport system (b) Antiport system

6. Consider the following statements. Which is correct?

(a) Intracellular concentration of Na+ is always high

(b) Intracellular concentration of K+ ion is low

concentration

(d) Extra cellular concentration of Na+ and intracellular concentration of K+ is always

high in normal cell

7. Exrachromosomal inheritance can be detected by-

(a) Back cross (b) Test cross

8. Dosage compensation occurs in-

(a) Insects and mammals (b) Reptiles and mammals

9. Drosophilla with chromosome complement XXXXY/AA will be-

(a) fertile female (b) meta male

10. During fusion of Rat and Human cell it was found that chromosomes of one species

was selectively eliminated, this had opened new doors to study-

(a) Transgenic study

(b) Chromosomal incompatibility

(d) Dominance of genes

11. B and T-cells of immune system are activated by-

(a) T-cytotoxic cells (b) T-helper cells

12. Immunoglobulin playing role in allergic reaction

(a) IgG (b) IgM

13. A bacteria growing exponentially with doubling rate of 10 minutes. The intrinsic rate

of growth would be maximum when bacterial numbers are-

(a) at carrying capacity

(b) half of carrying capacity

(d) remains constant at all phases

14. The nutritional medium was supplied to growing bacteria. If whole nutrient get

depleted in 20 cycles, then stage at which the amount of nutrient was half used-

(a) At end of 10 cycle (b) At beginning of 19 cycle

15. Regarding gene expression in prokaryotes and Eukaryotes, which statement is correct-

(a) m-RNA and DNA are colinear

(b) m-RNA and protein synthesis can occur simultaneously

(d) RNA polymerase can bind to promoters situated upstream to gene

16. DNA fragment between size 2000 KD and 500 Kd can be separated using-

(a) PAGE (b) chromatography

17. The strongest evidence which suggest that RNA was ancient then DNA

(a) RNA can act as template for DNA synthesis

(b) RNA can work as catalyst

(d) RNA is genetic material in certain viruses

18. In an polypeptide if alanine is replaced by praline then-

(a) Its tendency to form á-helix increases

(b) Its tendency to form â-sheets increase

(d) There would no effect

19. Phosopho fructokinase is allosterically regulated by-

(a) ATP (b) ADP

20. cdK-2 exerts its effect during which stage of cell cycle

(a) G1 phase (b) S phase

21. Diploid maize have 10 pairs of chromosome. Number of chromosome at Metaphase-I

will be-

(a) 10 (b) 20

22. For an endothermic reaction to occur spontaneously the

(a) DG = 0 (b) DG > 0

23. Which enzyme is involved in detoxification reaction-

(a) glutathione oxidase (b) topoisomerase

24. The birds in tropics are generally smaller in size because of-

(a) To increase surface area to volume ratio

(b) To decrease surface area to volume ratio

(d) Aestivation

25. In an pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is ‘p’ and biomass consumed

by small fishes is ‘c’, then the ratio of c/p is termed as-

(a) Assimilation efficiency

(b) Net secondary productivity

(d) Conversion efficiency

26. For climax which statement is INCORRECT?

(a) Number of perennial species increases

(b) Dependency on detritious food chain increases

(d) Exploitation competition is more then normal competition

27. At present, the relationship between human and monkey can be stated as

(a) They both have common ancestors

(b) Human have evolved from monkey

(d) Relationship can not be established

28. Most of new species are formed by the process of –

(a) Anagenesis (b) Cladogenesis

29. The alternative pathway of respiration can be inhibited by

(a) Cyanide (b) SHAM

30. Dendrogram is-

(a) Arrangement of chromosomes

(b) graphical representation of phylogenetic tree

(d) evolutionary time scale representation

31. Development of sporophyte directly from gametes without fertilization is termed as-

(a) Apogamy (b) Apospory

32. Goblet cells are located in-

(a) Liver (b) Oesophagus

33. The phytohormone which provides desiccation resistance to embryo in germinating

seed is-

(a) Gibberlic Acid (b) Ethylene

34. Plants growing in cold environments generally have

(a) high cholesterol (b) high saturated fatty acid

35. Which is not true about TCA cycle-

(a) takes place in mitochondrial matrix

(b) Single largest source of direct ATP

(d) there is formation of NADPH and FADH

36. Which is correct relationship between habitat disturbance and biodiversity-

(a) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity

(b) Areas with high habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity

(d) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have low biodiversity

37. The probability of capturing an individual of certain species is Pi, then total biodiversity

can be represented as

(a) S(Pi)2 (b) 1 – S (Pi)2

38. Hardy Weinberg law operates on-

(a) Non-evolving population (b) Slow evolving population

39. If a gene have a three alleles namely p, q, r. Then Hardy- Weinberg law can be

represented as-

(a) (p + q + r)² (b) (p + q + r)³

40. In a graph population density is plotted on X-axis then what should be plotted on

Y-axis to get a bell shape curve

(a) dN/dt (b) 1 – dN/dt

41. In an organism G + C content is 50 %. What is probability of matching 6 nucleotide

sequence in genome

(a) (0.25)4 (b) (0.25)5

42. The bacteria which are classified on basis of morphology are-

(a) Spore forming bacteria

(b) non-sporulating bacteria

(d) anaerobic bacteria

43. Among the following which groups do not obey Linneus Nomenclature?

(a) Virus (b) Bacteria

44. ICBN stands for

(a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

(b) International Code for Biological Nomenclature

(d) International Code for Binomial Nomenclature

45. The differences in chromosome morphology between different species can be compared

(a) chromosome banding

(b) Tritium Hydrogen labeling

(d) in-situ hybridization

46. Typical mendelian dihybrid ratio for F2 generation is-

(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 9:7

47. Smallest unit which can evolve is-

(a) Individual (b) Species

48. Nerves are connected to each other by

(a) hormone (b) neurotransmitter

49. Endocrine signaling is analogous to-

(a) Making a telephone call (b) Radio transmission

50. Examples of connective tissue are

(a) Bone and muscle (b)Muscle and Blood

ANSWER KEY
1. Maximum recombination frequency between two genes is-

(a) 25 % (b) 50 %

2. The distance between two base pairs in Watson-Crick B-DNA is

(a) 34 nm (b) 3.4 nm

(c) 0.34 nm (d) 0.034 nm

3. The stage of meiosis I in which crossing over takes place

(a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene

4. Among the following which mutagen induces formation of thymidine dimmers in

DNA

(a) UV (b) Ethyl methyl sulphate

5. Na+ – K+ pump is-

(a) Symport system (b) Antiport system

(c) ABC transporter (d) Diffusion pump

6. Consider the following statements. Which is correct?

(a) Intracellular concentration of Na+ is always high

(b) Intracellular concentration of K+ ion is low

concentration

(d) Extra cellular concentration of Na+ and intracellular concentration of K+ is always

high in normal cell

7. Exrachromosomal inheritance can be detected by-

(a) Back cross (b) Test cross

(c) Reciprocal cross (d) Dihybrid cross

8. Dosage compensation occurs in-

(a) Insects and mammals (b) Reptiles and mammals

9. Drosophilla with chromosome complement XXXXY/AA will be-

(a) fertile female (b) meta male

10. During fusion of Rat and Human cell it was found that chromosomes of one species

was selectively eliminated, this had opened new doors to study-

(a) Transgenic study

(b) Chromosomal incompatibility

(c) Gene and linkage mapping

(d) Dominance of genes

11. B and T-cells of immune system are activated by-

(a) T-cytotoxic cells (b) T-helper cells

12. Immunoglobulin playing role in allergic reaction

(a) IgG (b) IgM

13. A bacteria growing exponentially with doubling rate of 10 minutes. The intrinsic rate

of growth would be maximum when bacterial numbers are-

(a) at carrying capacity

(b) half of carrying capacity

(d) remains constant at all phases

14. The nutritional medium was supplied to growing bacteria. If whole nutrient get

depleted in 20 cycles, then stage at which the amount of nutrient was half used-

(a) At end of 10 cycle (b) At beginning of 19 cycle

(c) At end of 19 cycle (d) At end of 11 cycle

15. Regarding gene expression in prokaryotes and Eukaryotes, which statement is correct-

(a) m-RNA and DNA are colinear

(b) m-RNA and protein synthesis can occur simultaneously

(d) RNA polymerase can bind to promoters situated upstream to gene

16. DNA fragment between size 2000 KD and 500 Kd can be separated using-

(a) PAGE (b) chromatography

17. The strongest evidence which suggest that RNA was ancient then DNA

(a) RNA can act as template for DNA synthesis

(b) RNA can work as catalyst

(d) RNA is genetic material in certain viruses

18. In an polypeptide if alanine is replaced by praline then-

(a) Its tendency to form á-helix increases

(b) Its tendency to form â-sheets increase

(d) There would no effect

19. Phosopho fructokinase is allosterically regulated by-

(a) ATP (b) ADP

20. cdK-2 exerts its effect during which stage of cell cycle

(a) G1 phase (b) S phase

21. Diploid maize have 10 pairs of chromosome. Number of chromosome at Metaphase-I

will be-

(a) 10 (b) 20

22. For an endothermic reaction to occur spontaneously the

(a) DG = 0 (b) DG > 0

(c) DG < 0 (d) independent of DG

23. Which enzyme is involved in detoxification reaction-

(a) glutathione oxidase (b) topoisomerase

24. The birds in tropics are generally smaller in size because of-

(a) To increase surface area to volume ratio

(b) To decrease surface area to volume ratio

(d) Aestivation

25. In an pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is ‘p’ and biomass consumed

by small fishes is ‘c’, then the ratio of c/p is termed as-

(a) Assimilation efficiency

(b) Net secondary productivity

(c) Consumption efficiency

(d) Conversion efficiency

26. For climax which statement is INCORRECT?

(a) Number of perennial species increases

(b) Dependency on detritious food chain increases

(d) Exploitation competition is more then normal competition

27. At present, the relationship between human and monkey can be stated as

(a) They both have common ancestors

(b) Human have evolved from monkey

(d) Relationship can not be established

28. Most of new species are formed by the process of –

(a) Anagenesis (b) Cladogenesis

29. The alternative pathway of respiration can be inhibited by

(a) Cyanide (b) SHAM

30. Dendrogram is-

(a) Arrangement of chromosomes

(b) graphical representation of phylogenetic tree

(c) taxonomic key to establish relationship

(d) evolutionary time scale representation

31. Development of sporophyte directly from gametes without fertilization is termed as-

(a) Apogamy (b) Apospory

32. Goblet cells are located in-

(a) Liver (b) Oesophagus

33. The phytohormone which provides desiccation resistance to embryo in germinating

seed is-

(a) Gibberlic Acid (b) Ethylene

34. Plants growing in cold environments generally have

(a) high cholesterol (b) high saturated fatty acid

(c) high unsaturated fatty acid (d) short chain fatty acids

35. Which is not true about TCA cycle-

(a) takes place in mitochondrial matrix

(b) Single largest source of direct ATP

(c) is linked to glycolysis via pyruvate

(d) there is formation of NADPH and FADH

36. Which is correct relationship between habitat disturbance and biodiversity-

(a) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity

(b) Areas with high habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity

(c) Areas with moderate habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity

(d) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have low biodiversity

37. The probability of capturing an individual of certain species is Pi, then total biodiversity

can be represented as

(a) S(Pi)2 (b) 1 – S (Pi)2

38. Hardy Weinberg law operates on-

(a) Non-evolving population (b) Slow evolving population

39. If a gene have a three alleles namely p, q, r. Then Hardy- Weinberg law can be

represented as-

(a) (p + q + r)² (b) (p + q + r)³

40. In a graph population density is plotted on X-axis then what should be plotted on

Y-axis to get a bell shape curve

(a) dN/dt (b) 1 – dN/dt

41. In an organism G + C content is 50 %. What is probability of matching 6 nucleotide

sequence in genome

(a) (0.25)4 (b) (0.25)5

(c) (0.25)6 (d) (0.25)7

42. The bacteria which are classified on basis of morphology are-

(a) Spore forming bacteria

(b) non-sporulating bacteria

(d) anaerobic bacteria

43. Among the following which groups do not obey Linneus Nomenclature?

(a) Virus (b) Bacteria

44. ICBN stands for

(a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

(b) International Code for Biological Nomenclature

(d) International Code for Binomial Nomenclature

45. The differences in chromosome morphology between different species can be compared

(a) chromosome banding

(b) Tritium Hydrogen labeling

(d) in-situ hybridization

46. Typical mendelian dihybrid ratio for F2 generation is-

(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 9:7

47. Smallest unit which can evolve is-

(a) Individual (b) Species

(c) population (d) cell

48. Nerves are connected to each other by

(a) hormone (b) neurotransmitter

49. Endocrine signaling is analogous to-

(a) Making a telephone call (b) Radio transmission

50. Examples of connective tissue are

(a) Bone and muscle (b)Muscle and Blood

(c) Bone and cartilage (d) Blood and skin

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Monday, April 6, 2020

CUET MSC ZOOLOGY OR ANIMAL SCIENCE ENTRANCE EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

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