Showing posts with label CENTRAL UNIVERSITY ZOOLOGY. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CENTRAL UNIVERSITY ZOOLOGY. Show all posts

Monday, April 6, 2020

CUET MSC ZOOLOGY OR ANIMAL SCIENCE ENTRANCE EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS


1. If an enzyme obeying Hills reaction shows negative cooperativity. It means
(a) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme decreases affinity
for other substrate to other sub-units
(b) Binding of substrate to any one site of single unit enzyme decreases affinity for
other substrate
(c) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme increases affinity
for other substrate to other sub-units
(d) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme makes enzyme nonfuntional
2. In mitochondria succinyl CoA synthetase produces
(a) ATP (b) ADP
(c) GTP (d) AMP
3. l-phage insert their DNA into bacterial host. The site for recombination on host is
termed as-
(a) attP (b) attB
(c) Xis (d) Int
4. A person heterozygous for sickle cell anemia has advantage for both malaria and
sickle cell anemia. It illustrates
(a) Directional selection
(b) Heterozygote advantage
(c) Disruptive selection
(d) Directed mutation selection
5. Vibrio cholrae causes diahorrea by
(a) Opening ion channels
(b) Constitutive expression of adenylate cyclase
(c) Closing absorption of water from gut epithelium
(d) Destroys cells of intestinal lining
7. The fungus which is pathogenic to human is
(a) Candida albicans
(b) Saccromyces cervesae
(c) Penicillium
(d) Rhyzopus

7. During photorespiration which organelle is involved in conversion of glycolate into
glyoxylate
(a) Mitochondria (b) Peroxisomes
(c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus

8. Which pump is activated by light during closure of stomata
(a) H+-ATPase
(b) K+-ATPase
(c) Na+-H+-ATPase
(d) Na+-K+-ATPase

9. The steady state hypothesis for enzyme suggest that
(a) Rate of formation of ES complex by substrates is equal to rate of breakdown of
ES complex into products
(b) Rate of formation of ES complex is equal to rate of formation of products
(c) Rate of formation of ES complex and its dissociation into E and S are equal
(d) Enzyme are steadily consumed in the reaction
10. Which is correct for a-helix of a protein
(a) It has H-bonding in two or more parallel running chains
(b) There is interchain H-bonding in single helix
(c) No H- bonding is seen
(d) is tertiary structure

11. Which cell is involved in eliminating antigen by engulfing them without recognition
(a) phagocytotic cells (b) T-helper cells
(c) Killer T-cells (d) B-cells

12.Among the following which gene is not concerned with induction of cancer
(a) Src (b) Ras
(c) P53 (d) Actin
13. The morphological distinct sexual dimorphism is absent in
(a) Peacock, Myena, bulbul
(b) Crow, peacock, bulbul
(c) Hyena, bulbul, Sparrow
(d) Myena, bulbul, Hyena
14. Among the following Mendelian inheritance is obeyed by
(a) Quantitative traits
(b) Transposons
(c) Organelles
(d) Gene for vertical transfer of disease
15. Which species concept stress mainly on failure of interbreeding to keep them in
distinct species
(a) Biological species concept
(b) Ecological species concept
(c) Morphological species concept
(d) Phylogenetic species concept
16. The cells of warm blooded animals can be best stored at temperatures
(a) 37 °C (b) 0 °C
(c) –100 °C (d) –196 °C
17. The polysome can be describes as
(a) A special ribosome occurring in prokaryotes
(b) A DNA strand which is being transcribed by may RNA polymerase
(c) String of RNA occupied by many ribosomes
(d) Involved in control of transcription in prokaryotes
18. If there is no correct initiation of transcription. Which subunit of RNA polymerase
holoenzyme would have defect
(a) a subunit (b) b
(c) b' (d) s-subunit

19. The pattern of genomic imprinting is maintained from one generation to another by
(a) Phosphorylation of DNA
(b) Methylation
(c) Acetylation
(d) Glycosylation

20. Recently reptile fossils of age 200-250 MY have been found in Brazil and Ghanaportion
of West Africa. The landmass during that period was a portion of
(a) Pangea (b) Laurasia
(c) Gondwana (d) Tethys Sea  

 21. The most variable stage of cell cycle is
(a) G1 (b) G2
(c) Go (d) S
22. Among the following which order of arthropods has maximum species richness
(a) Hymenoptera (b) Lepidoptera
(c) Coleoptera (d) Diptera
23. The probability of a son to be color blind for parent with color blind father and normal
homozygous mother would be
(a) 0 % (b) 25 %
(c) 50 % (d) 100 %
24. Which statement is correct for following biological reaction:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ®6CO2 + 6H2O
(a) Entropy of system will increase
(b) Enthalpy for system will increase
(c) Free Energy for system will increase
(d) No change would be seen in free energy
25. Second most affecting green house gas after CO2 is
(a) Methane (b) NOx
(c) CFC (d) Ozone
26. Among the following which gas was totally absent during period of primitive origin of
life
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Methane (d) Ammonia
27. If a certain parasitic bacteria on insect prevents cross breeding among them. It will
lead into
(a) rapid speciation
(b) Divergence of insects
(c) Extinction of insects
(d) No effect
28. Among the following which compound links glycolysis and Kreb's cycle
(a) Acetyl Co A
(b) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Oxaloacetic acid
29. Secretion of histamine by degranulation from which cell leads in immediate
hypersensitivity
(a) Basophils (b) Mast cells
(c) T-helper cells (d) B-cells

30. The organism with high parental care will also show
(a) Semelparity
(b) Iteroperety
(c) Maturation at early stage
(d) Small size of offsprings
31. If any one of the parent invest more time for parental care on offsprings it would lead
to differences in
(a) Life span (b) Mental level
(c) Metabolism (d) Differential sex mate
32. The development of social behavior is related to
(a) Complex Brain size
(b) Genetic relatedness
(c) Size of population
(d) Size of organism

34. The acidic nature of orange juice is mainly due to citric acid. What would be pH of
0.1 M citric acid, if K1 for citric acid is 8.4 × 10–4.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
35. Vavilov’s origin of centre for sorghum is
(a) South East Asia (b) Central Africa
(c) India (d) East Asia
36. Oogenesis in human females results in
(a) 1 egg and 3 polar bodies
(b) 2 egg and 2 polar bodies
(c) 3 egg and 1 polar bodies
(d) 1 egg and 1 polar bodies
37. Direct correlation between recombination frequency and distance between genes can
be disturbed by presence
(a) Heterochromatin region between genes
(b) Exons
(c) Introns
(d) Euchromatin
38. Among the following interactions which will not force co-evolution
(a) Commensalisms (b) Parasitism
(c) Mutualism (d) Interspecific competition
39. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria represents
(a) Balancing selection
(b) Stabilizing selection
(c) Directional selection
(d) Disruptive selection
40. In a population a single gene locus has two alleles A and a with allele frequency of
‘a’ = 0.3. If genotype Aa is lethal and only individual with genotype AA and aa are
favored then over several generation
(a) Allele frequency will be 1:1
(b) Allele frequency will remain same to that of present
(c) Allele ‘a’ would be lost from population
(d) Genetic drift will be seen

41. The eukaryotic mitochondria is more similar to
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) protist (d) moulds

42. On buyout density centrifugation of certain DNA band was observed as high peak
corresponding to low density as compare to other DNA. It means
(a) DNA is AT rich
(b) DNA is GC rich
(c) Equal AT to GC ratio
(d) Single Stranded DNA
43. Which of the following can induce SOS response in bacteria
(a) Thymidine dimers (b) Hydorxylamine
(c) 5-Fluro Uracil (d) 2-Aminopurine
44. Cyanobacteria out competes the green algae in eutrophic lakes due to organic
pollutions because they can
(a) tolerate low oxygen level
(b) tolerate high phosphorus level
(c) fix nitrogen, so it is not limitating for them
(d) low light is required for photosynthesis

45. In a massive earthquake on island only few related species of lizards survived and
occupied the island. The phenomenon is also referred as
(a) Founder effect (b) Bottle Neck effect
(c) Vodka-Bertoni effect (d) Darwin's effect
46. Numerical taxonomy involves
(a) Overall similarity (b) Phylogenetic relationship
(c) Evolutionary relationship (d) Molecular taxonomy
47. Genetic Drift occurs by
(a) Chance (b) Immigration
(c) Emigration (d) Mutation
48. Organism inhabiting water scarce environment are likely
(a) Uricotelic (b) Ureotellic
(c) Ammonotellic (d) to have small kidney size
49. Circadian rhythms are controlled by
(a) Medulla (b) Cortex
(c) Pituatory gland (d) Suprachaismatic nucleus
50. What is prophage
(a) l phage DNA
(b) Stage of cell cycle
(c) DNA of temperate phage inserted into host chromosome
(d) A transposons


ANSWER KEY
1. If an enzyme obeying Hills reaction shows negative cooperativity. It means
(a) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme decreases affinity
for other substrate to other sub-units

(b) Binding of substrate to any one site of single unit enzyme decreases affinity for
other substrate
(c) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme increases affinity
for other substrate to other sub-units
(d) Binding of substrate to any one site of multisubunit enzyme makes enzyme nonfuntional
2. In mitochondria succinyl CoA synthetase produces
(a) ATP (b) ADP
(c) GTP (d) AMP
3. l-phage insert their DNA into bacterial host. The site for recombination on host is
termed as-
(a) attP (b) attB
(c) Xis (d) Int
4. A person heterozygous for sickle cell anemia has advantage for both malaria and
sickle cell anemia. It illustrates
(a) Directional selection
(b) Heterozygote advantage
(c) Disruptive selection
(d) Directed mutation selection
5. Vibrio cholrae causes diahorrea by
(a) Opening ion channels
(b) Constitutive expression of adenylate cyclase
(c) Closing absorption of water from gut epithelium
(d) Destroys cells of intestinal lining
7. The fungus which is pathogenic to human is
(a) Candida albicans
(b) Saccromyces cervesae
(c) Penicillium
(d) Rhyzopus
7. During photorespiration which organelle is involved in conversion of glycolate into
glyoxylate
(a) Mitochondria (b) Peroxisomes
(c) Chloroplast (d) Nucleus
8. Which pump is activated by light during closure of stomata
(a) H+-ATPase
(b) K+-ATPase
(c) Na+-H+-ATPase
(d) Na+-K+-ATPase
9. The steady state hypothesis for enzyme suggest that
(a) Rate of formation of ES complex by substrates is equal to rate of breakdown of
ES complex into products

(b) Rate of formation of ES complex is equal to rate of formation of products
(c) Rate of formation of ES complex and its dissociation into E and S are equal
(d) Enzyme are steadily consumed in the reaction
10. Which is correct for a-helix of a protein
(a) It has H-bonding in two or more parallel running chains
(b) There is interchain H-bonding in single helix
(c) No H- bonding is seen
(d) is tertiary structure
11. Which cell is involved in eliminating antigen by engulfing them without recognition
(a) phagocytotic cells (b) T-helper cells
(c) Killer T-cells (d) B-cells
12.Among the following which gene is not concerned with induction of cancer
(a) Src (b) Ras
(c) P53 (d) Actin
13. The morphological distinct sexual dimorphism is absent in
(a) Peacock, Myena, bulbul
(b) Crow, peacock, bulbul
(c) Hyena, bulbul, Sparrow
(d) Myena, bulbul, Hyena
14. Among the following Mendelian inheritance is obeyed by
(a) Quantitative traits
(b) Transposons
(c) Organelles
(d) Gene for vertical transfer of disease
15. Which species concept stress mainly on failure of interbreeding to keep them in
distinct species
(a) Biological species concept
(b) Ecological species concept
(c) Morphological species concept
(d) Phylogenetic species concept
16. The cells of warm blooded animals can be best stored at temperatures
(a) 37 °C (b) 0 °C
(c) –100 °C (d) –196 °C
17. The polysome can be describes as
(a) A special ribosome occurring in prokaryotes
(b) A DNA strand which is being transcribed by may RNA polymerase
(c) String of RNA occupied by many ribosomes
(d) Involved in control of transcription in prokaryotes
18. If there is no correct initiation of transcription. Which subunit of RNA polymerase
holoenzyme would have defect
(a) a subunit (b) b
(c) b' (d) s-subunit
19. The pattern of genomic imprinting is maintained from one generation to another by
(a) Phosphorylation of DNA
(b) Methylation
(c) Acetylation
(d) Glycosylation
20. Recently reptile fossils of age 200-250 MY have been found in Brazil and Ghanaportion
of West Africa. The landmass during that period was a portion of
(a) Pangea (b) Laurasia
(c) Gondwana (d) Tethys Sea  
 21. The most variable stage of cell cycle is
(a) G1 (b) G2
(c) Go (d) S
22. Among the following which order of arthropods has maximum species richness
(a) Hymenoptera (b) Lepidoptera
(c) Coleoptera (d) Diptera
23. The probability of a son to be color blind for parent with color blind father and normal
homozygous mother would be
(a) 0 % (b) 25 %
(c) 50 % (d) 100 %
24. Which statement is correct for following biological reaction:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ®6CO2 + 6H2O
(a) Entropy of system will increase
(b) Enthalpy for system will increase
(c) Free Energy for system will increase
(d) No change would be seen in free energy
25. Second most affecting green house gas after CO2 is
(a) Methane (b) NOx
(c) CFC (d) Ozone
26. Among the following which gas was totally absent during period of primitive origin of
life
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Methane (d) Ammonia
27. If a certain parasitic bacteria on insect prevents cross breeding among them. It will
lead into
(a) rapid speciation
(b) Divergence of insects
(c) Extinction of insects
(d) No effect
28. Among the following which compound links glycolysis and Kreb's cycle
(a) Acetyl Co A
(b) Pyruvic Acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Oxaloacetic acid
29. Secretion of histamine by degranulation from which cell leads in immediate
hypersensitivity
(a) Basophils (b) Mast cells
(c) T-helper cells (d) B-cells
30. The organism with high parental care will also show
(a) Semelparity
(b) Iteroperety
(c) Maturation at early stage
(d) Small size of offsprings
31. If any one of the parent invest more time for parental care on offsprings it would lead
to differences in
(a) Life span (b) Mental level
(c) Metabolism (d) Differential sex mate
32. The development of social behavior is related to
(a) Complex Brain size
(b) Genetic relatedness
(c) Size of population
(d) Size of organism
34. The acidic nature of orange juice is mainly due to citric acid. What would be pH of
0.1 M citric acid, if K1 for citric acid is 8.4 × 10–4.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
35. Vavilov’s origin of centre for sorghum is
(a) South East Asia (b) Central Africa
(c) India (d) East Asia
36. Oogenesis in human females results in
(a) 1 egg and 3 polar bodies
(b) 2 egg and 2 polar bodies
(c) 3 egg and 1 polar bodies
(d) 1 egg and 1 polar bodies
37. Direct correlation between recombination frequency and distance between genes can
be disturbed by presence
(a) Heterochromatin region between genes
(b) Exons
(c) Introns
(d) Euchromatin
38. Among the following interactions which will not force co-evolution
(a) Commensalisms (b) Parasitism
(c) Mutualism (d) Interspecific competition
39. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria represents
(a) Balancing selection
(b) Stabilizing selection
(c) Directional selection
(d) Disruptive selection
40. In a population a single gene locus has two alleles A and a with allele frequency of
‘a’ = 0.3. If genotype Aa is lethal and only individual with genotype AA and aa are
favored then over several generation
(a) Allele frequency will be 1:1
(b) Allele frequency will remain same to that of present
(c) Allele ‘a’ would be lost from population
(d) Genetic drift will be seen
41. The eukaryotic mitochondria is more similar to
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) protist (d) moulds
42. On buyout density centrifugation of certain DNA band was observed as high peak
corresponding to low density as compare to other DNA. It means
(a) DNA is AT rich
(b) DNA is GC rich
(c) Equal AT to GC ratio
(d) Single Stranded DNA
43. Which of the following can induce SOS response in bacteria
(a) Thymidine dimers (b) Hydorxylamine
(c) 5-Fluro Uracil (d) 2-Aminopurine
44. Cyanobacteria out competes the green algae in eutrophic lakes due to organic
pollutions because they can
(a) tolerate low oxygen level
(b) tolerate high phosphorus level
(c) fix nitrogen, so it is not limitating for them
(d) low light is required for photosynthesis
45. In a massive earthquake on island only few related species of lizards survived and
occupied the island. The phenomenon is also referred as
(a) Founder effect (b) Bottle Neck effect
(c) Vodka-Bertoni effect (d) Darwin's effect
46. Numerical taxonomy involves
(a) Overall similarity (b) Phylogenetic relationship
(c) Evolutionary relationship (d) Molecular taxonomy
47. Genetic Drift occurs by
(a) Chance (b) Immigration
(c) Emigration (d) Mutation
48. Organism inhabiting water scarce environment are likely
(a) Uricotelic (b) Ureotellic
(c) Ammonotellic (d) to have small kidney size
49. Circadian rhythms are controlled by
(a) Medulla (b) Cortex
(c) Pituatory gland (d) Suprachaismatic nucleus
50. What is prophage
(a) l phage DNA
(b) Stage of cell cycle
(c) DNA of temperate phage inserted into host chromosome
(d) A transposons

CUET MSC ZOOLOGY OR ANIMAL SCIENCE ENTRANCE EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Maximum recombination frequency between two genes is-
(a) 25 % (b) 50 %
(c) 75 % (d) 100 %
2. The distance between two base pairs in Watson-Crick B-DNA is
(a) 34 nm (b) 3.4 nm
(c) 0.34 nm (d) 0.034 nm
3. The stage of meiosis I in which crossing over takes place
(a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene
(c) Diakinesis (d) Pachytene
4. Among the following which mutagen induces formation of thymidine dimmers in
DNA
(a) UV (b) Ethyl methyl sulphate
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Ethydium bromide
5. Na+ – K+ pump is-
(a) Symport system (b) Antiport system
(c) ABC transporter (d) Diffusion pump
6. Consider the following statements. Which is correct?
(a) Intracellular concentration of Na+ is always high
(b) Intracellular concentration of K+ ion is low
(c) Extra cellular concentration of K+ and Na+ ion is isotonic to intracellular
concentration
(d) Extra cellular concentration of Na+ and intracellular concentration of K+ is always
high in normal cell
7. Exrachromosomal inheritance can be detected by-
(a) Back cross (b) Test cross
(c) Reciprocal cross (d) Dihybrid cross
8. Dosage compensation occurs in-
(a) Insects and mammals (b) Reptiles and mammals
(c) Reptiles and aves (d) Insects and reptiles
9. Drosophilla with chromosome complement XXXXY/AA will be-
(a) fertile female (b) meta male
(c) normal male (d) Intersex
10. During fusion of Rat and Human cell it was found that chromosomes of one species
was selectively eliminated, this had opened new doors to study-
(a) Transgenic study
(b) Chromosomal incompatibility
(c) Gene and linkage mapping
(d) Dominance of genes
11. B and T-cells of immune system are activated by-
(a) T-cytotoxic cells (b) T-helper cells
(c) Macrophages (d) B-cells
12. Immunoglobulin playing role in allergic reaction
(a) IgG (b) IgM
(c) IgD (d) IgE
13. A bacteria growing exponentially with doubling rate of 10 minutes. The intrinsic rate
of growth would be maximum when bacterial numbers are-
(a) at carrying capacity
(b) half of carrying capacity
(c) start of log phase
(d) remains constant at all phases
14. The nutritional medium was supplied to growing bacteria. If whole nutrient get
depleted in 20 cycles, then stage at which the amount of nutrient was half used-
(a) At end of 10 cycle (b) At beginning of 19 cycle
(c) At end of 19 cycle (d) At end of 11 cycle
15. Regarding gene expression in prokaryotes and Eukaryotes, which statement is correct-
(a) m-RNA and DNA are colinear
(b) m-RNA and protein synthesis can occur simultaneously
(c) processing of hn-RNA yields m-RNA
(d) RNA polymerase can bind to promoters situated upstream to gene
16. DNA fragment between size 2000 KD and 500 Kd can be separated using-
(a) PAGE (b) chromatography
(c) centrifugation (d) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
17. The strongest evidence which suggest that RNA was ancient then DNA
(a) RNA can act as template for DNA synthesis
(b) RNA can work as catalyst
(c) RNA is single stranded
(d) RNA is genetic material in certain viruses
18. In an polypeptide if alanine is replaced by praline then-
(a) Its tendency to form á-helix increases
(b) Its tendency to form â-sheets increase
(c) The hydrophobicity of chain decreases
(d) There would no effect
19. Phosopho fructokinase is allosterically regulated by-
(a) ATP (b) ADP
(c) AMP (d) Fructose-6-P
20. cdK-2 exerts its effect during which stage of cell cycle
(a) G1 phase (b) S phase
(c) G2 phase (d) M phase
21. Diploid maize have 10 pairs of chromosome. Number of chromosome at Metaphase-I
will be-
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
22. For an endothermic reaction to occur spontaneously the
(a) DG = 0 (b) DG > 0
(c) DG < 0 (d) independent of DG
23. Which enzyme is involved in detoxification reaction-
(a) glutathione oxidase (b) topoisomerase
(c) catalse (d) restriction enzymes

24. The birds in tropics are generally smaller in size because of-
(a) To increase surface area to volume ratio
(b) To decrease surface area to volume ratio
(c) For easy flight
(d) Aestivation
25. In an pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is ‘p’ and biomass consumed
by small fishes is ‘c’, then the ratio of c/p is termed as-
(a) Assimilation efficiency
(b) Net secondary productivity
(c) Consumption efficiency
(d) Conversion efficiency
26. For climax which statement is INCORRECT?
(a) Number of perennial species increases
(b) Dependency on detritious food chain increases
(c) Vertical stratification of community increases
(d) Exploitation competition is more then normal competition
27. At present, the relationship between human and monkey can be stated as
(a) They both have common ancestors
(b) Human have evolved from monkey
(c) Both have very distinct phylogeny
(d) Relationship can not be established
28. Most of new species are formed by the process of –
(a) Anagenesis (b) Cladogenesis
(c) Sympatric speciation (d) Phylogenetic evolution
29. The alternative pathway of respiration can be inhibited by
(a) Cyanide (b) SHAM
(c) Arachodoic acid (d) Amphicillin
30. Dendrogram is-
(a) Arrangement of chromosomes
(b) graphical representation of phylogenetic tree
(c) taxonomic key to establish relationship
(d) evolutionary time scale representation
31. Development of sporophyte directly from gametes without fertilization is termed as-
(a) Apogamy (b) Apospory
(c) Adventive embryony (d) Apomixis
32. Goblet cells are located in-
(a) Liver (b) Oesophagus
(c) Intestinal villi (d) Duodenum
33. The phytohormone which provides desiccation resistance to embryo in germinating
seed is-
(a) Gibberlic Acid (b) Ethylene
(c) Abssicic acid (d) Cytokinin
34. Plants growing in cold environments generally have
(a) high cholesterol (b) high saturated fatty acid
(c) high unsaturated fatty acid (d) short chain fatty acids
35. Which is not true about TCA cycle-
(a) takes place in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Single largest source of direct ATP
(c) is linked to glycolysis via pyruvate
(d) there is formation of NADPH and FADH
36. Which is correct relationship between habitat disturbance and biodiversity-
(a) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(b) Areas with high habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(c) Areas with moderate habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(d) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have low biodiversity
37. The probability of capturing an individual of certain species is Pi, then total biodiversity
can be represented as
(a) S(Pi)2 (b) 1 – S (Pi)2
(c) 1– S(1-Pi)2 (d) 1/S(Pi)2
38. Hardy Weinberg law operates on-
(a) Non-evolving population (b) Slow evolving population
(c) Random evolving population (d) Fast evolving population
39. If a gene have a three alleles namely p, q, r. Then Hardy- Weinberg law can be
represented as-
(a) (p + q + r)2 (b) (p + q + r)3
(c) (p + q + r) (d) (p + q)2
40. In a graph population density is plotted on X-axis then what should be plotted on
Y-axis to get a bell shape curve
(a) dN/dt (b) 1 – dN/dt
(c) T (d) Nt – 1
41. In an organism G + C content is 50 %. What is probability of matching 6 nucleotide
sequence in genome
(a) (0.25)4 (b) (0.25)5
(c) (0.25)6 (d) (0.25)7
42. The bacteria which are classified on basis of morphology are-
(a) Spore forming bacteria
(b) non-sporulating bacteria
(c) aerobic bacteria
(d) anaerobic bacteria
43. Among the following which groups do not obey Linneus Nomenclature?
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Archae (d) fungi
44. ICBN stands for
(a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(b) International Code for Biological Nomenclature
(c) International Code for Botanical Naming
(d) International Code for Binomial Nomenclature
45. The differences in chromosome morphology between different species can be compared
by
(a) chromosome banding
(b) Tritium Hydrogen labeling
(c) Fluorescence screening
(d) in-situ hybridization
46. Typical mendelian dihybrid ratio for F2 generation is-
(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 9:7
(c) 1:2:1 (d) 9:7
47. Smallest unit which can evolve is-
(a) Individual (b) Species
(c) population (d) cell
48. Nerves are connected to each other by
(a) hormone (b) neurotransmitter
(c) bones (d) muscles
49. Endocrine signaling is analogous to-
(a) Making a telephone call (b) Radio transmission
(c) Talking to self (d) Talking to partner over walky-talky
50. Examples of connective tissue are
(a) Bone and muscle (b)Muscle and Blood
(c) Bone and cartilage (d) Blood and skin

ANSWER KEY

1. Maximum recombination frequency between two genes is-
(a) 25 % (b) 50 %
(c) 75 % (d) 100 %
2. The distance between two base pairs in Watson-Crick B-DNA is
(a) 34 nm (b) 3.4 nm
(c) 0.34 nm (d) 0.034 nm
3. The stage of meiosis I in which crossing over takes place
(a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene
(c) Diakinesis (d) Pachytene
4. Among the following which mutagen induces formation of thymidine dimmers in
DNA
(a) UV (b) Ethyl methyl sulphate
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Ethydium bromide
5. Na+ – K+ pump is-
(a) Symport system (b) Antiport system
(c) ABC transporter (d) Diffusion pump
6. Consider the following statements. Which is correct?
(a) Intracellular concentration of Na+ is always high
(b) Intracellular concentration of K+ ion is low
(c) Extra cellular concentration of K+ and Na+ ion is isotonic to intracellular
concentration
(d) Extra cellular concentration of Na+ and intracellular concentration of K+ is always
high in normal cell
7. Exrachromosomal inheritance can be detected by-
(a) Back cross (b) Test cross
(c) Reciprocal cross (d) Dihybrid cross
8. Dosage compensation occurs in-
(a) Insects and mammals (b) Reptiles and mammals
(c) Reptiles and aves (d) Insects and reptiles
9. Drosophilla with chromosome complement XXXXY/AA will be-
(a) fertile female (b) meta male
(c) normal male (d) Intersex
10. During fusion of Rat and Human cell it was found that chromosomes of one species
was selectively eliminated, this had opened new doors to study-
(a) Transgenic study
(b) Chromosomal incompatibility
(c) Gene and linkage mapping
(d) Dominance of genes
11. B and T-cells of immune system are activated by-
(a) T-cytotoxic cells (b) T-helper cells
(c) Macrophages (d) B-cells
12. Immunoglobulin playing role in allergic reaction
(a) IgG (b) IgM
(c) IgD (d) IgE
13. A bacteria growing exponentially with doubling rate of 10 minutes. The intrinsic rate
of growth would be maximum when bacterial numbers are-
(a) at carrying capacity
(b) half of carrying capacity
(c) start of log phase
(d) remains constant at all phases
14. The nutritional medium was supplied to growing bacteria. If whole nutrient get
depleted in 20 cycles, then stage at which the amount of nutrient was half used-
(a) At end of 10 cycle (b) At beginning of 19 cycle
(c) At end of 19 cycle (d) At end of 11 cycle
15. Regarding gene expression in prokaryotes and Eukaryotes, which statement is correct-
(a) m-RNA and DNA are colinear
(b) m-RNA and protein synthesis can occur simultaneously
(c) processing of hn-RNA yields m-RNA
(d) RNA polymerase can bind to promoters situated upstream to gene
16. DNA fragment between size 2000 KD and 500 Kd can be separated using-
(a) PAGE (b) chromatography
(c) centrifugation (d) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
17. The strongest evidence which suggest that RNA was ancient then DNA
(a) RNA can act as template for DNA synthesis
(b) RNA can work as catalyst
(c) RNA is single stranded
(d) RNA is genetic material in certain viruses
18. In an polypeptide if alanine is replaced by praline then-
(a) Its tendency to form á-helix increases
(b) Its tendency to form â-sheets increase
(c) The hydrophobicity of chain decreases
(d) There would no effect
19. Phosopho fructokinase is allosterically regulated by-
(a) ATP (b) ADP
(c) AMP (d) Fructose-6-P
20. cdK-2 exerts its effect during which stage of cell cycle
(a) G1 phase (b) S phase
(c) G2 phase (d) M phase
21. Diploid maize have 10 pairs of chromosome. Number of chromosome at Metaphase-I
will be-
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
22. For an endothermic reaction to occur spontaneously the
(a) DG = 0 (b) DG > 0
(c) DG < 0 (d) independent of DG
23. Which enzyme is involved in detoxification reaction-
(a) glutathione oxidase (b) topoisomerase
(c) catalse (d) restriction enzymes

24. The birds in tropics are generally smaller in size because of-
(a) To increase surface area to volume ratio
(b) To decrease surface area to volume ratio
(c) For easy flight
(d) Aestivation
25. In an pond ecosystem, net productivity by zooplankton is ‘p’ and biomass consumed
by small fishes is ‘c’, then the ratio of c/p is termed as-
(a) Assimilation efficiency
(b) Net secondary productivity
(c) Consumption efficiency
(d) Conversion efficiency
26. For climax which statement is INCORRECT?
(a) Number of perennial species increases
(b) Dependency on detritious food chain increases
(c) Vertical stratification of community increases
(d) Exploitation competition is more then normal competition
27. At present, the relationship between human and monkey can be stated as
(a) They both have common ancestors
(b) Human have evolved from monkey
(c) Both have very distinct phylogeny
(d) Relationship can not be established
28. Most of new species are formed by the process of –
(a) Anagenesis (b) Cladogenesis
(c) Sympatric speciation (d) Phylogenetic evolution
29. The alternative pathway of respiration can be inhibited by
(a) Cyanide (b) SHAM
(c) Arachodoic acid (d) Amphicillin
30. Dendrogram is-
(a) Arrangement of chromosomes
(b) graphical representation of phylogenetic tree
(c) taxonomic key to establish relationship
(d) evolutionary time scale representation
31. Development of sporophyte directly from gametes without fertilization is termed as-
(a) Apogamy (b) Apospory
(c) Adventive embryony (d) Apomixis
32. Goblet cells are located in-
(a) Liver (b) Oesophagus
(c) Intestinal villi (d) Duodenum
33. The phytohormone which provides desiccation resistance to embryo in germinating
seed is-
(a) Gibberlic Acid (b) Ethylene
(c) Abssicic acid (d) Cytokinin
34. Plants growing in cold environments generally have
(a) high cholesterol (b) high saturated fatty acid
(c) high unsaturated fatty acid (d) short chain fatty acids
35. Which is not true about TCA cycle-
(a) takes place in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Single largest source of direct ATP
(c) is linked to glycolysis via pyruvate
(d) there is formation of NADPH and FADH
36. Which is correct relationship between habitat disturbance and biodiversity-
(a) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(b) Areas with high habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(c) Areas with moderate habitat disturbance tends to have high biodiversity
(d) Areas with no habitat disturbance tends to have low biodiversity
37. The probability of capturing an individual of certain species is Pi, then total biodiversity
can be represented as
(a) S(Pi)2 (b) 1 – S (Pi)2
(c) 1– S(1-Pi)2 (d) 1/S(Pi)2
38. Hardy Weinberg law operates on-
(a) Non-evolving population (b) Slow evolving population
(c) Random evolving population (d) Fast evolving population
39. If a gene have a three alleles namely p, q, r. Then Hardy- Weinberg law can be
represented as-
(a) (p + q + r)2 (b) (p + q + r)3
(c) (p + q + r) (d) (p + q)2
40. In a graph population density is plotted on X-axis then what should be plotted on
Y-axis to get a bell shape curve
(a) dN/dt (b) 1 – dN/dt
(c) T (d) Nt – 1
41. In an organism G + C content is 50 %. What is probability of matching 6 nucleotide
sequence in genome
(a) (0.25)4 (b) (0.25)5
(c) (0.25)6 (d) (0.25)7
42. The bacteria which are classified on basis of morphology are-
(a) Spore forming bacteria
(b) non-sporulating bacteria
(c) aerobic bacteria
(d) anaerobic bacteria
43. Among the following which groups do not obey Linneus Nomenclature?
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Archae (d) fungi
44. ICBN stands for
(a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(b) International Code for Biological Nomenclature
(c) International Code for Botanical Naming
(d) International Code for Binomial Nomenclature
45. The differences in chromosome morphology between different species can be compared
by
(a) chromosome banding
(b) Tritium Hydrogen labeling
(c) Fluorescence screening
(d) in-situ hybridization
46. Typical mendelian dihybrid ratio for F2 generation is-
(a) 9:3:3:1 (b) 9:7
(c) 1:2:1 (d) 9:7
47. Smallest unit which can evolve is-
(a) Individual (b) Species
(c) population (d) cell
48. Nerves are connected to each other by
(a) hormone (b) neurotransmitter
(c) bones (d) muscles
49. Endocrine signaling is analogous to-
(a) Making a telephone call (b) Radio transmission
(c) Talking to self (d) Talking to partner over walky-talky
50. Examples of connective tissue are
(a) Bone and muscle (b)Muscle and Blood
(c) Bone and cartilage (d) Blood and skin

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