Tuesday, April 7, 2020

IMMUNOLOGY MCQ FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS


1
1.Anti-venom to a patient for snake bite is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity

b) Artificially acquired active immunity

c) Naturally acquired passive immunity

d) Artificially acquired passive immunity



2. Babies gets antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity

b) Artificially acquired active immunity

c) Naturally acquired passive immunity

d) Artificially acquired passive immunity



3. Giving vaccine is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity

b) Artificially acquired active immunity

c) Naturally acquired passive immunity

d) Artificially acquired passive immunity



4. People are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infected. This immunity is an example of

a) Naturally acquired active immunity

b) Artificially acquired active immunity

c) Naturally acquired passive immunity

d) Artificially acquired passive immunity



5. Skin is the first line of defence. This is an example of

a) Naturally acquired innate immunity

b) Artificially acquired adaptive immunity

c) Naturally acquired passive immunity

d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

6. Which of the following is not a  non-specific defence mechanism a) fever

b) phagocytes

c) cell mediated immunity

d) complement system

7. The maturation site of T cell is ……………..



a) Bone marrow

b) Thymus

c) Spleen

d) Appendix



8. The  immune mechanism is responsible for protecting us from diseases of other species is………………..

a) Active immunity

b) Passive immunity

c) Innate immunity

d) Adaptive immunity

9. Identify the Primary lymphoid organs ?



a) Thymus and spleen

b) Thymus and bone marrow

c) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen

d) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes

10. Activation of B cell receptor by the binding of an epitope result in the formation of

a) plasma cells and T cytotoxic cells

b) memory cells and T cytotoxic cells

c) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for primary response

d) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for secondary response



11.Chemical nature of  antibodies is



a) proteins

b) glycoproteins

c) carbohydrates

d) nucleic acid



12. Antibodies consists of



a) 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y-shaped configuration

b) A light chain and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y-shaped configuration

c) 2 light chains and a heavy chain arranged in a Y-shaped configuration

d) all of these



13. In immunoglobulin the light chains and heavy chains are joined by



a) covalent bond

b) hydrogen bond

c) di-sulphide bond

d) ionic bond



14. The antigen binding site on an immunoglobulin is called



a) antitope

b) epitope

c) paratope

d) endotope



15. An immunoglobulin has



a) 2 Fab regions and an Fc region

b) an Fab region and an Fc region

c) 2 Fab regions and 2 Fc regions

d) many Fab regions and many Fc regions



16. The hypervariable region  of immunoglobulin situated  in the



a) N terminal region of light chain

b) N-terminal region of light and heavy chain

c) C-terminal region of light chain

d) C-terminal region of light chain and heavy chain



17. The term Fab stands for



a) fragment antibody binding

b) fragment antigen binding

c) fragment antibody or antigen binding

d) fragment affinity binding



18. Identify the  true statements regarding Fc region



a) fragment crystalisation and is the constant region

b) fragment constant and is the variable region

c) fragment crystalisation and is the variable region

d) fragment crystalisation and has both variable and constant region



19.Which is true about Fab region



a) has a hypervariable region that binds with antibody

b) has a hypervariable region that binds with antigen

c) has a hypervariable region that binds with other immune cells

d) all of these



20. Fc region of immunoglobulin is involved in



a) cell surface receptor binding

b) complement activation

c) determining diffusivity of antibody molecule

d) all of these



11. Which of the following represents the ability of antigen to stimulate antibody production



a) affinity

b) Antigenicity

c) elicitation

d) none of these



22.In immunoglobulins  Light chains and heavy chains are joined by



a) hydrogen bond

b) hydrophobic bond

c) di-sulphide bond

d) ionic bond



23. Clearance of antigens by immunoglobulins involve



a) neutralization and agglutination

b) opsonisation and complement activation

c) precipitation

d) all of these



24. The two identical light chains of an immunoglobulin is



a) kappa only

b) lambda only

c) lambda or kappa

d) none of these



25. The hypervariable region of immunoglobulins as 



a) 5-10 aminoacids that form antigen binding site

b) 50-100 aminoacids that form antigen binding site

c) 5-10 aminoacids that forms the antibody binding site

d) a part of constant region of heavy and light chain



26. Most abundant antibody is



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE





27. IgG which is targeted against polysaccharides of encapsulated bacteria



a) IgG1

b) IgG2

c) IgG3

d) IgG4



28.Gamma immune globulin consists of



a) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by di-sulphide bond (H2L2)

b) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by hydrogen bond (H2L2)

c) 2 light chains and a heavy chain joined by di-sulphide bond (H1L2)

d) a light chain and two heavy chains joined by di-sulphide bond (H2L1)



29. Immunoglobulin  that can cross placenta and provide passive immunity to new born



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE



30. Immunoglobulin  that first reaches the site of infection



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE



31. Largest immunoglobulin is



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE



32. Immunoglobulin M is

a) IgM is a pentamer and is the largest Ig and called as ‘natural antibody’

b) IgM exists as monomer on B-cell surface

c) IgM is involved in early primary immune response

d) all of these



33. Correct statement is



a) IgM is involved in primary immune response

b) IgG is involved in primary immune response

c) Both IgM and IgG are involved in primary immune response

d) IgG is involved only in secondary immune response



34. The Immunoglobulin present in secretions like tears, saliva, colostrum is



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE



35. Immunoglobulin of exocrine secretions is



a) IgM

b) IgG

c) IgA

d) IgE







36. Penicillin allergy is an example of



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



37. Othername of type IV hypersensitivity is



a) immediate hypersensitivity



b) delayed hypersensitivity



c) cytotoxic hypersensitivity



d) immune complex hypersensitivity



38. The Immunoglobulin involved intype II hypersensitivity is



a) IgG



b) IgM



c) IgE



d) IgD



39 .Helper T cell mediated hypersensitivity is



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



40. Which of vthe following trigger Type III hypersensitivity



a) mast cells and IgE



b) K cells and IgG



c) deposition of antigen antibody complexes



d) Th cells



41. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia  is ………………….



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



42. “Wheal and flare” reaction is characteristic reaction associated with ………………….



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



43. Antibody dependant cytotoxicity is associated with which hypersensitivity



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



44. Allergies to crabs,prawns , eggs albumen etc is an example of



a) Type I hypersensitivity



b) Type II hypersensitivity



c) Type III hypersensitivity



d) Type IV hypersensitivity



45.which of the following is not associated with innate immunity



    a) anatomic barriers



    b) phagocytic



    c) inflammatory mechanisms



    d) antibody production



46 Component of first line of defence is



    a) skin



    b) mucus



    c) lysozyme secretion



    d) all of these



 47. Stomach destroys  pathogens by



    a) secreting HCl



    b) secreting digestive enzymes



    c) both a and b



    d) none of these



48. Vaginal bacterial symbionts like Lactobacilli prevents inection by



    a) producing lactic acid thereby reducing pH



    b) secreting antibiotics



    c) secreting toxins



    d) none of these



49. Macrophages helps in



    a) phagocytosis



    b) antigen presenting cells



    c) cytokine production



    d) all of these



50.Kupffer cells are associated with……………



    a) lung



    b) bone



    c) nephrons



    d) liver







51. Temperature increasing substances are called



    a) pyrogens



    b) thermogens



    c) both a and b



    d) none of these



52. Antiviral proteins released by living cells in response to viral attack and induce a viral resistant state to neighbouring cells is called as







    a) natural killer cells



    b) complement system



    c) interferons



    d) phagocytes







53.In body defence the complement system



    a) consists of 20 serum proteins



    b) serum proteins acts as biological cascade



    c) both a and b



    d) are set of antibodies



54. Complement system is associated with



    a) specific defence



    b) non-specific defence



    c) both a and b



    d) none of these



55. Correct statement about complement activation is



    a) lysis of pathogen, tumor cells and allografts



    b) production of mediators that attracts neutrophils to the site of inflammation



    c) opsonization



    d) all of these



56. Classical pathway of complement system is accomplished by



    a) antibody-antigen complexes



    b) antigen



    c) antigenic peptides



    d) antigens bound to MHC



57. Alternate pathway of complement system is triggered by



    a) antibody-antigen complexes



    b) antigen



    c) microorganisms or its toxins



    d) antigens bound to MHC



58. The central molecule in complement pathway is



    a) C1



    b) C2



    c) C3b



    d) C5



59. Cell lysis in complement pathway is initiated by



    a) membrane destruction complex



    b) membrane degradation complex



    c) membrane attacking complex



    d) membrane lysis complex



60. Biological role of complement system is



    a) cytolysis and chemotaxis



    b) opsonisation



    c) anaphylotoxin and enhanced antibody production



    d) all of these



61. Self cells are protected from membrane attack complex by a surface glycoprotein called



    a) MHC



    b) DAF



    c) TCR



    d) BCR



62. Anti rabies vaccine was developed by



    a) Louis Pasteur



    b) Edward Jenner



    c) Carl Landsteiner



    d) Joseph Miester



63. Vaccination  was first developed by



    a) Louis Pasteur



    b) Edward Jenner



    c) Carl Landsteiner



    d) Joseph Miester



64. The process by which pathogens are  weakend is called



    a) vaccination



    b) attenuation



    c) immunization



    d) virulence reduction



65. The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against



    a) Pox virus



    b) hepatitis virus



    c) rabies virus



    d)none of these



66. Vaccine consists of



    a) an antigenic protein



    b) weakened pathogen



    c) live attenuated pathogen



    d) all of these



67. The process of introduction of killed or inactive pathogen into human body is called



     a) Immunization



    b) vaccination



    c) attenuation



    d) none of these



68. Immunoglobins are



    a) opsonins



    b) lipoproteins



    c) serum phagocytes



    d) none of these

69.The substance that promotes phagocytosis of antigens by binding to them are called as



    a) opsonins



    b) phagocytes



    c) macrophages



    d) interleukins

70. The process of selective proliferation of B cells in response to their interaction with the antigen is called



    a) clonal expansion



    b) monoclonal selection



    c) clonal proliferation



    d) clonal selection


ANSWER KEY
1.Anti-venom to a patient for snake bite is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

2. Babies gets antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

3. Giving vaccine is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

4. People are immune to diseases like chicken pox once infected. This immunity is an example of
a) Naturally acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

5. Skin is the first line of defence. This is an example of
a) Naturally acquired innate immunity
b) Artificially acquired adaptive immunity
c) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
6. Which of the following is not a  non-specific defence mechanism a) fever
b) phagocytes
c) cell mediated immunity
d) complement system
7. The maturation site of T cell is ……………..
a) Bone marrow
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Appendix

8. The  immune mechanism is responsible for protecting us from diseases of other species is………………..
a) Active immunity
b) Passive immunity
c) Innate immunity
d) Adaptive immunity
9. Identify the Primary lymphoid organs ?
a) Thymus and spleen
b) Thymus and bone marrow
c) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen
d) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes
10. Activation of B cell receptor by the binding of an epitope result in the formation of
a) plasma cells and T cytotoxic cells
b) memory cells and T cytotoxic cells
c) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for primary response
d) Plasma cells for antibody production and memory cells for secondary response
11.Chemical nature of  antibodies is
a) proteins
b) glycoproteins
c) carbohydrates
d) nucleic acid
12. Antibodies consists of
a) 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y-shaped configuration
b) A light chain and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y-shaped configuration
c) 2 light chains and a heavy chain arranged in a Y-shaped configuration
d) all of these
13. In immunoglobulin the light chains and heavy chains are joined by
a) covalent bond
b) hydrogen bond
c) di-sulphide bond
d) ionic bond
14. The antigen binding site on an immunoglobulin is called
a) antitope
b) epitope
c) paratope
d) endotope
15. An immunoglobulin has
a) 2 Fab regions and an Fc region
b) an Fab region and an Fc region
c) 2 Fab regions and 2 Fc regions
d) many Fab regions and many Fc regions
16. The hypervariable region  of immunoglobulin situated  in the
a) N terminal region of light chain
b) N-terminal region of light and heavy chain
c) C-terminal region of light chain
d) C-terminal region of light chain and heavy chain
17. The term Fab stands for
a) fragment antibody binding
b) fragment antigen binding
c) fragment antibody or antigen binding
d) fragment affinity binding
18. Identify the  true statements regarding Fc region
a) fragment crystalisation and is the constant region
b) fragment constant and is the variable region
c) fragment crystalisation and is the variable region
d) fragment crystalisation and has both variable and constant region
19.Which is true about Fab region
a) has a hypervariable region that binds with antibody
b) has a hypervariable region that binds with antigen
c) has a hypervariable region that binds with other immune cells
d) all of these
20. Fc region of immunoglobulin is involved in
a) cell surface receptor binding
b) complement activation
c) determining diffusivity of antibody molecule
d) all of these
11. Which of the following represents the ability of antigen to stimulate antibody production
a) affinity
b) Antigenicity
c) elicitation
d) none of these
22.In immunoglobulins  Light chains and heavy chains are joined by
a) hydrogen bond
b) hydrophobic bond
c) di-sulphide bond
d) ionic bond
23. Clearance of antigens by immunoglobulins involve
a) neutralization and agglutination
b) opsonisation and complement activation
c) precipitation
d) all of these
24. The two identical light chains of an immunoglobulin is
a) kappa only
b) lambda only
c) lambda or kappa
d) none of these
25. The hypervariable region of immunoglobulins as 
a) 5-10 aminoacids that form antigen binding site
b) 50-100 aminoacids that form antigen binding site
c) 5-10 aminoacids that forms the antibody binding site
d) a part of constant region of heavy and light chain
26. Most abundant antibody is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE


27. IgG which is targeted against polysaccharides of encapsulated bacteria
a) IgG1
b) IgG2
c) IgG3
d) IgG4
28.Gamma immune globulin consists of
a) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by di-sulphide bond (H2L2)
b) 2 light chains and two heavy chains joined by hydrogen bond (H2L2)
c) 2 light chains and a heavy chain joined by di-sulphide bond (H1L2)
d) a light chain and two heavy chains joined by di-sulphide bond (H2L1)
29. Immunoglobulin  that can cross placenta and provide passive immunity to new born
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE
30. Immunoglobulin  that first reaches the site of infection
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE
31. Largest immunoglobulin is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE
32. Immunoglobulin M is
a) IgM is a pentamer and is the largest Ig and called as ‘natural antibody’
b) IgM exists as monomer on B-cell surface
c) IgM is involved in early primary immune response
d) all of these
33. Correct statement is
a) IgM is involved in primary immune response
b) IgG is involved in primary immune response
c) Both IgM and IgG are involved in primary immune response
d) IgG is involved only in secondary immune response
34. The Immunoglobulin present in secretions like tears, saliva, colostrum is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE
35. Immunoglobulin of exocrine secretions is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE



36. Penicillin allergy is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
37. Othername of type IV hypersensitivity is
a) immediate hypersensitivity
b) delayed hypersensitivity
c) cytotoxic hypersensitivity
d) immune complex hypersensitivity
38. The Immunoglobulin involved intype II hypersensitivity is
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE
d) IgD
39 .Helper T cell mediated hypersensitivity is
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
40. Which of vthe following trigger Type III hypersensitivity
a) mast cells and IgE
b) K cells and IgG
c) deposition of antigen antibody complexes
d) Th cells
41. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia  is ………………….
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity 
42. “Wheal and flare” reaction is characteristic reaction associated with ………………….
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
43. Antibody dependant cytotoxicity is associated with which hypersensitivity
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
44. Allergies to crabs,prawns , eggs albumen etc is an example of
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity
45.which of the following is not associated with innate immunity
    a) anatomic barriers
    b) phagocytic
    c) inflammatory mechanisms
    d) antibody production
46 Component of first line of defence is
    a) skin
    b) mucus
    c) lysozyme secretion
    d) all of these

47. Stomach destroys  pathogens by
    a) secreting HCl
    b) secreting digestive enzymes
    c) both a and b
    d) none of these
48. Vaginal bacterial symbionts like Lactobacilli prevents inection by
    a) producing lactic acid thereby reducing pH
    b) secreting antibiotics
    c) secreting toxins
    d) none of these
49. Macrophages helps in
    a) phagocytosis
    b) antigen presenting cells
    c) cytokine production
    d) all of these
50.Kupffer cells are associated with……………
    a) lung
    b) bone
    c) nephrons
    d) liver

51. Temperature increasing substances are called
    a) pyrogens
    b) thermogens
    c) both a and b
    d) none of these
52. Antiviral proteins released by living cells in response to viral attack and induce a viral resistant state to neighbouring cells is called as

    a) natural killer cells
    b) complement system
    c) interferons
    d) phagocytes

53.In body defence the complement system
    a) consists of 20 serum proteins
    b) serum proteins acts as biological cascade
    c) both a and b
    d) are set of antibodies
54. Complement system is associated with
    a) specific defence
    b) non-specific defence
    c) both a and b
    d) none of these
55. Correct statement about complement activation is
    a) lysis of pathogen, tumor cells and allografts
    b) production of mediators that attracts neutrophils to the site of inflammation
    c) opsonization
    d) all of these
56. Classical pathway of complement system is accomplished by
    a) antibody-antigen complexes
    b) antigen
    c) antigenic peptides
    d) antigens bound to MHC
57. Alternate pathway of complement system is triggered by
    a) antibody-antigen complexes
    b) antigen
    c) microorganisms or its toxins
    d) antigens bound to MHC
58. The central molecule in complement pathway is
    a) C1
    b) C2
    c) C3b
    d) C5
59. Cell lysis in complement pathway is initiated by
    a) membrane destruction complex
    b) membrane degradation complex
    c) membrane attacking complex
    d) membrane lysis complex
60. Biological role of complement system is
    a) cytolysis and chemotaxis
    b) opsonisation
    c) anaphylotoxin and enhanced antibody production
    d) all of these
61. Self cells are protected from membrane attack complex by a surface glycoprotein called
    a) MHC
    b) DAF
    c) TCR
    d) BCR

62. Anti rabies vaccine was developed by
    a) Louis Pasteur
    b) Edward Jenner
    c) Carl Landsteiner
    d) Joseph Miester
63. Vaccination  was first developed by
    a) Louis Pasteur
    b) Edward Jenner
    c) Carl Landsteiner
    d) Joseph Miester
64. The process by which pathogens are  weakend is called
    a) vaccination
    b) attenuation
    c) immunization
    d) virulence reduction
65. The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against
    a) Pox virus
    b) hepatitis virus
    c) rabies virus
    d)none of these
66. Vaccine consists of
    a) an antigenic protein
    b) weakened pathogen
    c) live attenuated pathogen
    d) all of these
67. The process of introduction of killed or inactive pathogen into human body is called
     a) Immunization
    b) vaccination
    c) attenuation
    d) none of these
68. Immunoglobins are
    a) opsonins
    b) lipoproteins
    c) serum phagocytes
    d) none of these
69.The substance that promotes phagocytosis of antigens by binding to them are called as
    a) opsonins
    b) phagocytes
    c) macrophages
    d) interleukins

70. The process of selective proliferation of B cells in response to their interaction with the antigen is called
    a) clonal expansion
    b) monoclonal selection
    c) clonal proliferation
    d) clonal selection


 



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