Excretion,
Osmoregulations, Skeletal system, Nervous Coordination & endocrine system
1.
The chemical substance that is responsible for increasing blood pressure due to
renin action is
(a) erythropoetin
(b)
aldosterone
(c)
angiotensinogen
(d) angiotensin I
(e) angiotensin II
2.
Which one is likely to occur in a person suffering from Kidney failure?
(a) absence of deamination
(b) lack of ornihine cycle
(c) proteinuria
and albuminuria
(d) uremia
(e) all the above
3.
Ammonia formed during protein catabolism is converted into uric acid in the
liver of animals which are
(a) ammonotelic
(b) ureotelic
(c) guanotelic
(d) uricotelic
(e) ornithinotelic
4.
The white solid material usually found in bird’s dropping is
(a) ammonium salt
(b) urate
(c)uric acid
(d) guanine
(e) xanthine oxidase
5.
Accumulation of crystals of uric acid in joints causes
(a) nephrits
(b) renal stone
(c) polyuria
(d) gout
(e)
albuminuria
6.
The genetic disease in which homogentisic acid is exerted out with urine is
(a) haematuria
(b) glucosuria
(c) uremia
(d)
alkaptonuria
(e) diuresis
7.
Alcohol intake causes excess urination because alcohol
(a) enhances urea synthesis
(b) promotes renal filtration
(c) mixes up
with urine
(d)depresses the level of vasopression
(e) evacuate urinary bladder
8.
The region of nephron impermeable to water is
(a) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(b) proximal convoluted tubule
(c) distal convoluted tubule
(d) descending limb of Henle’s loop
(e) collecting duct
9.
Glomerular filtrate usually does not contain
(a) glucose
(b) urea
(c) proteins
(d) aminoacid
(e) sodium chloride
10.
The liver cells of urotelic animals essentially require the enzyme
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) zymase
(c) citric
acid synthetase
(d) arginase
(e) hyaluronidase
11.
Cartilaginous fishes synthesise and retain urea in blood to keep
(a) ammonotelism
(b) isotonicity
(c) uricotelism
(d) hypertonicity
(e) hypotonicity
12.
Which one of he following represents locomotary movement?
(a) beating of cilia and flagella
(b) peristatsis and cyclosis
(c) crawling
and burrowing
(d) vibrations of pinnae
(e) closing of eye lids and protrusion of tongue
13.
A syncytial or multinucleate condition exists in
(a) skeletal muscle
(b) smooth muscle
(c) cardiac
muscle
(d) viscal muscle
(e) involuntary muscle
14.
Each muscle cell is surrounded by a thin sheath of connective tissue called
(a) sarcolemma
(b) endomysium
(c) perimysium
(d) epimysium
(e) none of the above
15.Sarcosomes
of muscles are
(a) lysosome
(b) ribosome
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi bodies
(e) glycogen granules
16.
In elderly persons the stiffness in joints in due to
(a) hardening of bones
(b) hardening of muscles
(c) enlargement of bones
(d) decrease in sinuvial fluid
(e) increase in sinuvial fluid
17.
During relaxation of muscles which one of the following does not take place?
(a) Ca++ ions are packed up by endoplasmic reticulum
(b) myosin ATPase activity is reduced
(c) Actin-myosin cross bridges are stopped
(d) repolarisation of sarcolemma by increased out flux
of Na+.
(e) repolarisation of barcolemma by increased out
flux of K+
18.
The deltoid ridge of humerus in meant for
(a) articulation
(b) protection
(c) attachment of muscles
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above
19.
Six out of the 206 bones of human skelton are confined to
(a) Wrist
(b) skull
(c) ankle
(d) middle ear
(e) pelvic girdle
20.
The depression of human skull in the area of pituitary gland is called
(a) foramen magnum
(b) foramen triosseum
(c) sella turcia
(d) sacral foramen
(e) obturator foramen
21.
The muscle fatique is due to
(a) accumulation of lactic acid
(b) prolonged previous activity
(c) consumption of stored glucogen
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above
22.
Which one of the following is not pertaining to pectoral girdle?
(a) scapula
(b) glenoid cavity
(c) clavicle
(d) pivot joint
(e) sinuvial joint
23.
Nissle’s granules of neurons are associated with
(a) impulse transmission
(b) protein synthesis
(c) elimination of wastes
(d) phagocytosis
(e) removal of dead cells
24.
The bone that does not enter into the composition of human cranium is
(a) occipital
(b) frontal
(c) maxilla
(d) ethmoid
(e) sphenoid
25.
Match columns to get correct combination
Column I
|
Column II
|
1. Collar bone
|
p- Patella
|
2. Shoulder blade
|
q- Femur
|
3. Knee cap
|
r- Scapula
|
4. Breast bone
|
s- Clavicle
|
5. Thigh bone
|
t- Sternum
|
(a) 1= t, 2=p, 3=r, 4=q, 5=s
(b) 1=r, 2=q, 3=s, 4= q, 5=t
(c) 1=t, 2=s,
3=r, 4=q, 5=p
(d) 1=s, 2=r, 3=p, 4=t, 5=q
(e) 1=q, 2=t, 3=s, 4=r, 5=p
26.
If he urine of a man in tasteless, dilute and watery, he may be suffering from
(a)Oedema
(b) uremia
(c) renal stone
(d) diabetes mellitus
(e) diabetes incipidus
27.
A motor impulse arriving at a neuromuscular junction generates an action
potential, which causes the release of Ca++ from the sarcoplarmic reticulam,
these Ca++ blind with specific sites present on
(a) myosin
(b) tropomyosin
(c) troponin
(d) F-actin
(e) G-actin
28.
The highly vascularised parts of the eye providing nourishment and oxygen to
retina is
(a) Choroid
(b) ciliary body
(c) iris
(d) cornea
(e) vitreous chamber
29.
The impulse received by the sensory hair cells of the organs of Corti are
carried by auditory nerve to
(a) fronal lobe
(b) temporal lobe
(c) pons varoli
(d) parietal lobe
(e) medulla oblongata
30.
Match Columns to get correct combinations
Column
I
|
Column
II
|
1.
Trigeminal
|
p-absent
in anamniotes
|
2.
Auditory
|
q-dentist’s
nerve
|
3.
Occulomotor
|
r-movement
of tongue
|
4.
Spinal accessory
|
s-sensory
nerve
|
5.
Hypoglossal
|
t-movement
of eye ball
|
(a) 1=s, 2=r,
3=p, 4=q, 5=t
(b)
1=q, 2=s, 3=t, 4=p, 5=r
(c)
1=t, 2=r, 3=s, 4=q, 5=p
(d)
1=s, 2=p, 3=r, 4=t, 5=q
(e)
1=p, 2=r, 3=q, 4=s, 5=t
1.
Which of the
following is not a lung fish?
a)
latimaria b)
neoceratodus c) lepidosiren d)
protopterus e) all of these
2.
Flightless birds
are kept in a particular group of birds called
a)
ratitae b) impennae
c) carinatae d) odontognathae e) neognathae
3.
Which of the following
is present in rat but absent in frog:
a) salivary gland b) skin gland c) adrenal gland d) thyroid gland e) none of these
4.
The structure
present in earthworm similar to intestinal vill of man is
a) prostrate gland b)
typhlosole c) chloragogen cells d) clitellum e) none of these
5.
Number of
occiptal condyle in mammals is
a) 1 b) 2 c) some time
1, some time 2 d)
uncertain e) none of these
6.
Respiration in
tadpole of frog takes place by
a) pulmonary respiration b)
Buccal respiration c)
Branchial respiration
d) Cutaneous respiration e) Bucco pharyngeal respiration
7.
Typhlosole is
a) the respiratory structure of certain aquatic annelids
b) last segment of nereis
c) the dorsal fold of alimentary canal of
earth worm
d) the straight region of intestine
e) fold of skin between segments
8.
Ventral nerve
cord in Cockroach has
a) 9 ganglia in abdominal region
b) 3 ganglia in thoracic part and 6
abdominal part
c) 6 ganglia in thoracic part and 3 abdominal part
d) 9 ganglia in thoracic part and 3 abdominal part
e) Numerous ganglia
9.
A non-matching
set in the following is:
a) Rhacophorus – Flying frog b) Ichthyophis –
Blind worm
c) Phrynosoma – Desert lizard d)
Hippocampus – Dog fish
e) Echidna - Spiny ant eater
10.
Venous heart with
single circulation is seen in
a) neoceratodus b)
salamander c) scoliodon d) snake e)
none
11.
Which of the
following is absent in frog:
a) pancreas b) large intestine c) salivary
glands d) middle ear
e) cerebellum
12.
Male cockroaches
are distinguished from the females by the presence of
a) anal cercus b) anal
style c) fore wing d) coxa e) compound eye
13.
Bidder’s canal is
present in
a) rabbit b) frog c)
rat d) man e) both b & c e) cockroach
14.
Nemathelminthes
are:
a) triploblastic, acoelomates and bilaterally
symmetrical
b) diploblastic, pseudocoelomates and bilaterally
symmetrical
c) triploblastic, eucoelomates and bilaterally
symmetrical
d) triploblastic,
psedoelomates and bilaterally symmetrical
e) triploblastic, pseudocoelomates and radically
symmetrical
15.
In tapeworm and
liver fluke digestive system, sense organs and locomotor organs are reduced or
absent. This is because:
a) they
lead a parasitic mode of life b) they are produced in large numbers
c) they are produced in small
number d) they need only less
energy e) they lack nerves
16.
A viviparous
parasite:
a) ascaris b) hook worm c) wuchereria d) enterobius
e) liver fluke
17.
A unique feature
of mollusca is:
a) gills b) shell c) mentle d)
soft body e) muscular foot to
crawl
18.
Largest
invertebrates are certain:
a) octopus b) squids c) oyster d) palaemons e)ship
worms
19.
Entamoeba differs
from amoeba in:
a) its mode of reproduction b) its absence of food vacuole
c) its
absence of contractile vacuole d) its outer covering e) none
20.
Leech is ________
in food habit
a) carnivorous b)
herbivorous c)
omnivorous
d) sanguivorous e) fruguivorous
21.
An example of
mollusc is
a) star fish b) silver fish c) cuttle fish d) dog fish
22.
A nocturnal
parasitic insect:
a) bed
bug b) cockroach c) housefly
d) beetle e) all the above
23.
“Venus flower basket” is an example of the
phylum:
a) coelenterata b) porifera c) echinodermata d)
rotifera e)
amoeba
24.
Which of the
following is the sand worm?
a) megascolex
b) nereis c) leech
d) polychaetes e)
balanoglossus
25.
Which of the
following is a matching set of groups in animal classification?
a) Annelida, porifera and mammalia as phyla
b) hydrozoa, mollusca and chordata as phyla
c) protistia, reptilia and mammalia as class
d) insecta, amphibia and mammalia as class
e) mollusca, chordata and crinoidea as class
26.
Match the
following and select the wrong matching
a) ragworm - nereis b) pinworm – oxyuris c) round worm – ascaris
d) seat worm - enterobius e) sand worm – earth worm
27.
A viviparous
parasite
a) ascaris b) hook worm c) wuchereria d) enterobius e) liver fluke
Which
protozoa resembles the ancestral form from which plants and animals evolved?
a) amoeba b) porifera
c) echinodormata d)
rotifera e) euglena
28.
29.
Grinding and
filtration of food in cockroach occur in
a) Pre-oral cavity b)
Crop c)
Stomach d) Proventriculus e) Midgut
30.
Classification of
sponge is based on:
a) nutrition b)
locomotion c) spicules d)
reproduction e) canal system
1.
If the linkage
was known at time of Mendel, then which of the following low Mendel was unable
to explain?
a)
Law of dominance b) Law of independent assortment
c)
Law of segregation d)
Law of purity of gametes
2.
When chromosome
sets are present in multiple of ‘n’ the condition is called
a) polyploidy b) aneuploidy c) Euploidy d) Diploidy
3.
Transformation
experiments using pneumoccocus bacteria led to the hypothesis that
a)
RNA is the
transfer link between DNA and protein synthesis
b)
Chromosomes are
made up of DNA
c)
DNA
is genetic substance
d)
Bacteria has
sexual reproduction
4.
The type of RNA
specifically responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino acids in
protein sythesis is
a) Ribosomal RNA b) messenger RNA c)
chromosomal RNA d) None
5.
Through which
enzyme can RNA give rise to DNA
a) Restriction enzyme b)
DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase d) Reverse ranscriptase
6.
Study of
improvement of human race by providing ideal ‘nature’ is called
a) eugenics
b) euphenics c) euthenics d) genetics
e) None of these
7.
If a haemophilic
man marries a woman carrier for haemophilia, what would be the possibility that
their daughter would be haemophilic?
a) 100% b)
75% c) 50% d)
0% e) None of these
8.
Normally all
genes occur in pairs occupying position on the X chromosome and not in Y
chromosome. This indicates that
a)
X chromosome is
large than ‘X’ chromosome
b)
Entire
set gene on X is different from those on Y chromosome
c)
X chromosome is
larger Y chromosome
d)
X chromosome is
dominating with Y chromosome
e)
None of these
9.
In human beings
sex is determined
a)
Before
fertilization sex is determined
b)
During 6th
week of foetal life when androgen are produced
c)
At
the time of fertilization of ovum
d)
During 7th
and 8th week of foetal life when gonads differentiates into testis
and ovary
e)
None of these
10.
Genetic
engineering means
a) manipulation of genes
b) manipulation of cell contents
c) manipulation of maculaadherens d) formation of test tube baby
e) None
11.
A haploid set of
all the genes present in a gamete is called
a) genotype b) phenotype c) genone d) Linkage group
e) None
12.
HbA
and HbS alleles of normal and Sickle celled RBC are
a) Dominant-recessive
alleles b) Polygenic alleles c)
Codominant alleles
d) Multiple alleles e)
None
13.
RNA polymerase
which is on the promoter, moves to the structural genes to transcribe them.
However it happens when
a) there is no repressor
on the operator b) there
is repressor on the operator
c)
Inducer binds to structural genes d)
RNA polymerase shifts first to regulator gene
e)
Regular gene induces promoter
14.
Haploid
chromosome number is 10. What is number in a monosomic
a) 19 b) 18 c)
20 d) 22 e) 11
15.
Which chromosomes
is found in male Grasshopper
a) XY b) X c) XO d) XY e) XX
16.
Colchicine
inhibits
a) Meetaphase b)
Anaphae c) Interphase d) Spindle formation
e) Any of these
17.
How many types of
gametes you expect from the genotype Aa Bb
a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32 e) 64
18.
‘Gametes are
never hybrid’. It is a statement of law of
a) dominance b)
segregation c) independent assortment
d)
random fertilization e) none of the
above
19.
Certain genetic
elements that regularly ‘jump’ to new locations, often inactivating the gene
into which they become inserted, are called
a) Heterochromatin b)
Episomes c)
Overlapping genes
d)
Transposons e) Cistron
20.
Point mutation is
a change which involves
a) loss of a gene b) addition of a gene
c)
change in a base of a gene
d) deletion of a segment of gene
e) all of these
21.
In split genes,
the coding sequences are called
a) Cistrons b) Opeerons c) Exons
d) Introns e) None
22.
Starting and stopping
codons are respectively;
a)
UCA and UAA b) AUG and UGA c)
GUA and AAA
d)
GUG and AUG e) UUU and AUU
23.
Anticodon is
found in;
a)
mRNA b) rRNA c) DNA d)
tRNA e) cDNA
24.
Plasmids are suitable
vectors for genetic cloning as;
a)
They are
indispensable
b)
They
are self replicating units
c)
They are
essential for bacterial reproduction
d)
They are
essential for bacterial nutrition
e)
They are cheaply
available
25.
A piece of
nucleic acid used to find a gene by forming a hybrid with it is called:
a)
vector b)
probe c) retrovirus d)
restriction sequence e) non of these
26.
A set of
bacterial clones, each containing a plasmid or phage is called;
a)
gene pool b) genome
c)
gene library d)
genophore e)
codone
27.
ABO blood
grouping in humans is an example of
a) Polygenic inheritance b) Pleiotropic
gene c) Complementary gene
d) Multifactor inheritance e) Multiple alleles
28.
A mixture of heat
killed NL-cells (dead cells) and live L-cells injected into mic NL-type cells
are pathogenic, develop a disease and kill the animals, on the other hand
L-type cells are non pathogenic. The expected result could be
a) Mice develop disease
and die
b) Mice die without developing disease
c) Mice do not develop disease and also do not die
d) 50% mice develop disease and die
e) All mice remain healthy but loose vision
29.
Genes do not
occur in pair in
a) Zygote b)
Somatic cell c) Endosperm cells d) Gametes e)
None
No comments:
Post a Comment
Note: Only a member of this blog may post a comment.