Biolearnspot: NEET BIOLOGY PRACTICE MCQ

1. It is suggested that protoplasm originated in sea water because……….

a) Salt concentration in many land form is less than 1%

b) Salt concentration in sea water is much higher

c) Most of the salt in the protoplasm show a remarkable similarity to sea water

d) None of the above

2. The first organism to appear on the earth was more like plants than like animals because:

a) plants are simple in structure b) plants can manufacture their own food

c) there are more plants than animals d) plants are green colored

e) none of the above

3. Darwin’s theory of natural selection to explain organic evolution was based on:

a) modifications in organs through use and disuse

b) prodigality of reproduction, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest

c) inheritance of acquired character

d) appearance of sudden large variations, their inheritance and survival of those having these variations

e) none of these

4. For evolutionary success, a mutation must occur in:

a) germplasm DNA b) germplasm RNA c) somatic RNA

d) somatic DNA e) plasma protein

5. Role of isolation in evolution is

a) differentiation of species b) maintenance by species

c) evolutionary divergence d) extermination of species e) all of them

6. The set of homologous organs amongst the following is:

a) hand of man and wings of bat. b) eyes of man and eyes of squid

c) gills of fish and lungs of man d) leaf of moss and root of fem

7. Which of the following is a criticism of Larmark’s theory?

a) retractile claws of carnivores for speedy running

b) snakes lost limbs and narrow long body for cavedwelling

c) giraffe developed long necks as an adaptation for feeding

d) drosophila in dark for 62 generation developed ordinary eyesight.

8. Which is a haemoflagellata

a) plasmodium b) trypanosoma c) Entamoeba d) all of the above

9. Nemathelminthes are:

a) triploblastic, acoelomates and bilaterally symmetrical

b) diploblastic, pseudocoelomates and bilaterally symmetrical

c) triploblastic, eucoelomates and bilaterally symmetrical

d) triploblastic, psedoelomates and bilaterally symmetrical

e) triploblastic, pseudocoelomates and radically symmetrical

10. Match the following and select the wrong matching

a) ragworm – nereis b) pinworm – oxyuris c) round worm -- ascaris d) seat worm – enterobius e) sand worm – earth worm

11. If amoeba is kept in distilled water, its contractile vacuole:

a) works slowly b) works faster c) remain unaffected

d) disappears e) will get larger

12. The most successful parasite is one that has

a) a life cycle involving sequence of hosts b) permanently attached to the host

c) undergone great amount of degeneration d) makes the minimum demand on the host

e) no life cycle

13. Measly port will contain

a) a large number of microfilariae b) encysted cysticerious larvae

c) hexacanth larva of tape worm d) miracidium larvae e) flesh infected with taenia

14. Snake venom is

a) alkaline in reaction b) acidic in reaction. c) alkaline and rich in fatty acid d) acidic and rich in fatty acid e) neutral

15. Which is the following is the intestinal round worm?

a) Ascaris lumbricoids b) Ancylostoma duodenale

c) Enterobius vermicularis d) Wucheraria bancrofti

e) Dracunculus medinensis

16. Nereis is hermaphrodite but shows cross-fertilization. This is because:

a) protandrous condition b) protogyny c) there is no larval stage

d) self-fertilization produce unviable eggs e) none of these

17. Which of the following is not true about classification of chordata?

a) phylum chordata is divided into four sub-phyla-hemichordata

b) gnathostomata have true jaws and are divided into two super classes; pisces and tetra poda

c) subphylum vertebrata has two divisions – agnatha and gnathostamata

d) super class tetrapoda has four classes – amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammals

18. Which of the following is not a lung fish?

a) latimaria b) neoceratodus c) lepidosiren d) protopterus e) all of these

19. Theory of spontaneous generation explains that:

a) Life originated do nova b) God created all life c) scientists created all life in laboratories d) life begets life e) None

20 . Fossil is a -------

a) laboratory preserved animal b) dead animal c) stuffed animal

d) impression, cast or actual remains of past animals e) all of them

MCQ for medical entrance Biology-Human Reproduction

1. Forensic investigation of rape case focuses on the presence of fructose in female reproductive system, the only part of the human body producing fructose is

(a) Cowper’s gland

(b) prostate gland

(d) Seminal vesicle

(e) epididymis

2. Secretion of tesesterone by Leydig’s cells is stimulated by

(a) FSH

(b) TSH

(d) ACTH

(e) ICSH

3. HIV virus causing AIDS infjects mainly

(a) helper T- cells

(b) Suppressor T-Cells

(d) Cytotoxic Cells

(e) B-lymphocytes

4. Prions are pertinacious particles capable of causing injections; prions are discovered by

(a) Rober Koch

(b) Jonas Salk

(d) S.A. Waksman

(e) Karl Landsteiner

5. Persons with higher count of Ig-E antibodies are prone to

(a) HIV

(b) Tuberculosis

(d) Typhus Fever

(e) Rabies

6. Which one of the following is produced early in the life of a human female?

(a) Relaxin

(b) Oxytocin

(d) Progesterone

(e) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin

7. Pregnancy test is confirmed by the presence of

(a) Prolactin in urine

(b) relaxin in urine

(d) FSH and LH in urine

(e) renin and erythropoietin in urine

8. A very low regeneration ability is shown by

(a) ammelids

(b) mematode worms

(d) flat worms

(e) tape worms

9. Sperm of an animal species ‘X’ is unable to fertilize the egg of ‘Y’ because

(a) fertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are not compatible

(b) antifertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are not compatible

(d) antifertilisin of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are not compatible.

(e) none of the above

10. For the formation of 32 spermatids and 16 ova the number of meiosis required is

(a) 4 and 16

(b) 4 and 8

(d) 8 and 8

(e) 32 and 16

11. Implantation of human embryo occurs when it is a

(a) morula

(b) neurula

(d) zygote

(e) blastcyst

12. Hormone that prevents ovulation is

(a) prolacitn

(b) progesterone

(d) FSH

(e) LH.

13. Pick up the wrong pair

(a) Leydig’s cells- secretion of testosterone

(b) Epididymis- Store house of sperms

(d) Decidua basalies- maternal part of placenta

(e) Gastrulation- morphogenetic movement

14. The statement pertaining o primary spermatocyte is

(a) Products of meiosis I

(b) haploid cells with 22+ x or 22+y compliments

(d) spermatogenesis occurs

(e) Type –B spermatogonium lineage

15. Follicular atresia refers to

(a) formation of Graafian follicles

(b) rearrangement of follicular cells to form CL

(d) development of antrum

(e) regression and disappearance of ovarian follicles

16. The oocyte is covered by a thick coat called zona pellucida made up of

(a) granulose cells

(b) glycoprotein

(d) thecal cells

(e) Lactose

17. Human blastula is called

(a) Coeloblastula

(b) discoblastula

(d) blastocyst

(e) holoblastula

18. Tyson’s glands occur in male on

(a) urethra

(b) scrotum

(d) epididymis

(e) seminal vesicle.

19. Chromosome number is halved during

(a) formation of first polar body

(b) formation of second polar body

(d) division of second polar body

(e) division of secondary oocyte

20. In human female ovulation occurs during mensterual cycle

(a) at the end of proliferative phase

(b) at the beginning of proliferative phase

(d) in the middle of secretary phase

(e) None of the above

21. Trophectoderm cells are involved in

(a) formation of extraembryonic membrance

(b) formation of placenta

(d) all the above

(e) none of the above

22. Sertoli cells are

(a) endocrine

(b) nutritive

(d) Secretary

(e) all the above

23. Which one occurs first in the human embryo

(a) neurogenesis

(b) notogenesis

(d) hepatogenesis

(e) osteogesis

24. The embryonic stage that resembles a mulberry fruit is

(a)zygote

(b) nerula

(d)morula

(e) blastula

25. The process not involved in gametogenesis is

(a) formation of polar body

(b) formation of spermatid

(d) formation of Graafian follicle

(e) release of ova from ovary

26. Pick up the wrong match

(a) Bartholin’s glands- human vagina

(b) sertoli cells- seminiferous tubules

(d) conversion of spematid to sperm – spermatogenesis

(e) Estrogens, FS and LH- control of menstrual cycle

27. Match columns to get correct combination

Column I	Column II
1. Morula	p-placenta
2. Rubella Virus	q-connection of foetus & placenta
3. Chorionic gonadolropins	r-prevention of polyspermy
4. Cortical reaction	s-16 cell stage
5. umbilical cord	t-teratogen

(a) 1=t, 2=r, 3=s, 4=q, 5=p

(b) 1=q, 2=p, 3=t, 4=r, 5=s

(d) 1=t, 2=q, 3=p, 4=s, 5=r

(e) 1=r, 2=s, 3=q, 4=t, 5=s

28. Pregnancy is established by

(a) insemination

(b) Ejaculation

(d) implantation

(e) capacitation

29. The three primary germ layers, ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm are differentiated during

(a) blastulation

(b)neurulation

(d) tabulation

(e) organogency

30. Chorion encircles and covers

(a) amnion

(b) yolk-sac

(d) embryo

(e) all the above

MCQ for Medical entrance Biology-Cell as a unit of life

1. The cytoplasmic connections of adjacent cells in

plants is maintained through

(a) Porins

(b) Plasmodesmata

(d) Blind pits

(e) All except (c)

2. The endomembrane system in a cell includes

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum

(b) Golgi complex

(d) Vacuoles

(e) All of these

3. The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is mainly

concerned with

(a) protein synthesis (b) Secretion

(e) All except (d)

4. Which of the following is not true of Golgi apparatus

(a) They were first observed by Camillo Golgi

(b) They consist of cisternae, vesicles and

Tubules

(d) The main function is to package materials for

transport

(e) Golgi apparatus is found in Prokaryotic cells

5. The ‘Suicidal’bag of an animal cell is

(a)Spherosome (b) Dictyosome

(e) None of these

6. The single membrane of a vacuole is called

(a) Tonoplast (b) Vacuoplast

(e) Aleuroplast

7. The ‘Power house of a cell” is

(a) Lysosome (b) Golgi apparatus

(e) ER

8. The inner membrane of the Mitochondria are folded

inwards towards matrix to form

(a) Mesosomes (b) Cristae

(e) Pinosome

9. Mitochondria divides by

(a) Cell division in which cell plate is

always found

(b) Amitosis

(d) Meiosis

(e) Budding

10. Ribosomes found in mitochondria are of the type

(a) 80S (b) 60S

(e) 30S

11. Coloured plastids containing fat soluble pigments

like carotene and xanthophyll are

(a) Chloroplast (b) Chromoplast

(e) Symplast

12. Type of Leucoplast which store starch are called

(a) Amyloplast (b) Elaioplast

(e) Bioplast

13. Number of chloroplast found in Chlamydomonas is:

(a) One

(b) Two and sometimes three

(d) Indeterminate

(e) Five

14. Shape of chloroplast found in Spirogyra

(a) Lens shaped (b) Oval

(e) Ribbon like

15. Thylakoids are

(a) Double membrane bound

(b) Single membrane bound

(d) Parts where chlorophyll is seen

(e) Both (b) and (d)

16. Similarity between chloroplast and Mitochondria

(a) Both are organelles

(b) Both are double membrane bound

(d) Both contain DNA

(e) All of these

17. Ribosomes are composed of

(a) RNA only (b) Proteins only

18. Size of the ribosomes is indirectly indicated by

‘S’ which stands for

(a) Subunit

(b) Sedimentation coefficient

(d) Schwann (Name of its discoverer)

(e) Sphere

19. The core of a eukaryotic flagellar filament is called

(a) Cytoskeleton (b) Centrosome

(e) Spoke

20. The microtubular arrangement in the flagellar

filament is represented as

(a) 9+0 (b) 9+2

(e) 12 + (1)

MCQ For Medical Entrance Biology- Animal Nutrition Respiration & Circulation

Lacteals absorb

(a) Lactic acid

(b) Lactose

(d) Fatty acid

(e) All the above

Carbohydrates are more suitable for the production of energy than fats and proteins as they

(a) have higher calorie values

(b) require more Oxygen for Oxidation

(d) are major source of blood and sugar

(e) can be stored as glycogen in tissues

The set of terms pertaining to human dentition is

(a) thecodont – aerodont – diphyodont

(b) heterodont- polyphyodont- thecodont

(d) heterodont- thecodont-pleurodont

(e) diphyodont- heterodont- homodont

The first organ receiving nutrient-rich blood after absorption from intestine is

(a) Brain

(b) Heart

(d) Liver

(e) Spleen

Damage of which cell of the Stomach will result into Pernicious Anaemia

(a) Chief cells

(b) Goblet cells

(d) Zymogen cells

(e) Oxyntic cells

What is common among Ptyalin, Renin and Pepsin

(a) Protein digesting enzymes

(b) Produced in stomach

(d) Digestive enzymes

(e) Proteinacious substances

The digestive glands of rat differ from those of man in the presence or absence of

(a) Salivary glands

(b) Lobed liver

(d) Gastric glands

(e) Pancreas

The buccal Cavities of frog and rat are identical as both

(a) have teeth for mastication

(b) Saliva containing salivary amylase

(d) Immovable upper jaw and movable lower jaw

(e) Have bilobed tongue

Pick up the wrong one

(a) Prorennin ----HClà rennin

(b) casein ----rennin à paracasein

(d) calcium paracaseinate ----pepsin à peptones + proteoses

(e) peptones ----pepsinogen à amino acids

Vitamins are not involved in

(a) growth

(b) metabolism

(d) respiration

(e) digestion

If we take lime juice after meals, then the action of salivary amylase on starch

(a) is stopped

(b) is reduced

(d) remains unaffected

(e) none of the above

Just as HCl is to pepsinogen, so is enterokinese to

(a) prothrombin

(b) prorennin

(d) trypsinogen

(e) all the above

13.Match columns to get correct combination.

Column I	Column II
A complete digestive juice	p – Saccus entericus
A watery alkaline secreation with no enzymes.	q – Bile secreted by liver
Active at PH 2.0 --- 3.0	r – Pancreatic juice
Essential for fat digestion	s – Secretion of Brunner’s glands
Secretions of intestinal glands	t – Gastric juice

(a) 1= t, 2= p, 3= r, 4= q, 5= s.

(b) 1= q, 2= r, 3= s, 4= p, 5= t.

(d) 1= s, 2= q, 3= p, 4= t, 5= r.

(e) 1= t, 2= r, 3= q, 4= p, 5= s.

14.Which one of the following is not involved in blood coagulation.

(a) fibrin

(b) thrombin

(d) calcium ions

(e) heparin

15. Artificial pace-maker is required for patient having

(a) coronary thrombosis

(b) arteriosclerosis

(d) irregularity in heart rhythm

(e) cerebral thrombosis

16. Though human heart is myogenic, it is innervated by a nerve called

(a) occulomotor

(b) hypoglossal

(d) trochlear

(e) trigeminal

17. The action potential generated at SA node travels at a velocity of

(a) 0.3 m/sec

(b) 0.9 m/sec

(d) 3.0 m/sec

(e) 33 m/sec

18. A transverse glove present on human heart between the atria and ventrieles is

(a) chorda tendinae

(b) foramen ovalis

(d) coronary suclus

(e) auriculoventricular value

19. The right atrium of heart receives blood drawn from all parts of the body except

(a) heart

(b) brain

(d) lungs

(e) skin

20. The statements true about human RBC are

1. About 4.5 to 5.5 million per cubic millimeter

2. Circular, biconcave and disk shaped

3. 12-15 um in diameter

4. Enzyme carbonic anhydrase present

5. Plays a vital role in blood coagulation

(a) 1, 2 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 4 and 5

(e) 1, 2 and 4

21. The enlarged Q-R segment of ECG is an indication of

(a) insufficient oxygen to heart muscle

(b) failure of depolarization of atria

(d) expression of ventricular depolarization

(e) delayed depolarization of atria

22. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) There are 300 millions of alveoli in two lungs of man

(b) At rest breathing occurs about 16-18 times per minute

(d) Arterial pulse rate is about 72-80 per minute

(e) The normal systolic and diastolic pressure of a healthy man is 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg

23. Match the columns to get correct combination

Column I	Column II
1. Vital Capacity	p -1200 ml of air
2. Tidal Volume	q -100 ml of air
3. Residual Volume	r - 2500 ml of air
4. Expiratory reserve volume	s - 500 ml of air
5. Functional residual capacity	t - 3400 – 4800 ml of air

(a) 1=t, 2=s, 3=p, 4=r, 5=q

(b) 1=r, 2=p, 3= q, 4=s, 5=t

(d) 1=q, 2=t, 3=r, 4=p, 5=s

(e) 1=s, 2=q 3=t, 4=r, 5=p

24. At tissue level 100ml of blood carries

(a) 4.4 ml of oxygen

(b) 1.34 ml of oxygen

(d) 19.4 ml of oxygen

(e) 20 ml of oxygen

25. The most active of all the white blood cells in terms of mobility and phagocytosis are

(a) lymphocytes and monocytes

(b) neutrophils and monocytes

(d) neutrophils and basophils

(e) lymphocytes and eosinophils

26. Sodium citrate is an anti coagulant used for storing blood in blood banks, it prevents blood coagulation by

(a) blocking fibrinogen convertion

(b) By removing thrombin

(d) inhibiting clotting factors of blood

(e) By removing Ca++ ions of blood.

27. A man of blood group A marries an AB blood group woman, which type of progeny indicates that the man is not homozygous?

(a) AB

(b) A

(d) O

(e) all the above

28. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) Hepatic vein has the highest amount of urea

(b) Carotid artery carries oxygenated blood to brain

(d) Blood coagulation occurs in consequence of destruction of RBCs

(e) The squeezing out of leucocytes from capillaries is called diapedesis

29. A mature RBC has characteristic of a prokaryotic cell in the absence of

(a) genetic material

(b) nucleus

(d) membrane bound structures

(e) all the above

30. Which one of the following is not expected when a person ascends up at high altitude where oxygen pressure is not low?

(a) hypoxia

(b) polycythemia

(d) asphyxia

(e) hyperpnea

Biolearnspot

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Sunday, January 5, 2014

NEET BIOLOGY PRACTICE MCQ

MCQ for medical entrance Biology-Human Reproduction

MCQ for Medical entrance Biology-Cell as a unit of life

MCQ For Medical Entrance Biology- Animal Nutrition Respiration & Circulation

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